D Does not exceed the equivalent of one hour of flight time, at cruising speed with only one

D Greater than the actual.

OPERATIONAL

PROCEDURES

AEROPLANES

Flight crew members on the flight deck shall keep their safety belt fastened:

a from take off to landing.

b only during take off and landing.

c only during take off and landing and whenever necessary by the commander in the interest of safety.

D while at their station.

Who shall provide the flight operations personal with a operations manual and also

issue the amendments to keep it up to date?

a Owner of the aircraft.

b Aircraft producer.

C Aircraft operator.

d ATS authority of the state of registry.

Who checks, before flight, that the aircraft's weight is such that flight can be safely

made, and that any transported cargo is properly distributed and secured? (Annex

6, Part I)

a The operator.

B The captain.

c The mechanic on board, or in his absence the co-pilot.

d The company's cargo technicians.

For twin-engined aircraft, the take-off alternate shall be located at a distance that:

(Annex 6, Part I)

a Does not exceed the equivalent of two hour of flight time at cruising speed all engines operating.

b Does not exceed the equivalent of two hours of flight time, at cruising speed with only one engine

operative.

c Does not exceed the equivalent of one hour of flight time at cruising speed all engines operating.

D Does not exceed the equivalent of one hour of flight time, at cruising speed with only one

Engine operative.

5. One shall not initiate any flight made in accordance with instrument flight rules

unless the available information indicates that the conditions at the aerodrome of

predicted destination or, at an aerodrome of alternative destination, are: (Annex 6,

Part I)

A At the predicted time of arrival equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for

Aerodrome use.

b At the predicted time of take-off equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for

aerodrome use.

c At the predicted time of arrival, and for a reasonable period before and after such a predicted time,

equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.

d At the predicted time of arrival better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.

6. When refueling is being performed while passengers are boarding or disembarking

the aircraft, it is necessary that: (Annex 6, Part I)

a All the flight crew be on board.

b The aircraft's stairs be completely extended.

c Refueling is prohibited while passengers are boarding and/or disembarking.

D Communications be maintained between ground personnel and qualified personnel on

Board.

The operator will include in the operations manual a list of minimum required

equipment approved by: (Annex 6, Part I)

a The country where the aircraft is operated.

b The country where the aircraft was manufactured.

C The country of the operator.

d It is not mandatory that such a book be approved by aviation authorities.

Aircraft using a VFR flight plan in controlled airspace shall be equipped: (Annex 6,

Part I)

A As is necessary for aircraft that operate in accordance with instrument flight rules.

b Only as is necessary for aircraft that make VFR flights.

c With more anti-icing and/or de-icing devices (if one expects icy conditions).

d As is necessary for aircraft that make VFR flights, and such aircraft must also possess indicators of

attitude and course, along with a precise barometric altimeter.

The M.E.L. (Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by:

a the manufacturer

B the operator

c the aircraft manufacturer's list

d the aircraft state of registry

The M.M.E.L. (Master Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by:

a the operator.

B the manufacturer.

c the aircraft manufacturer's list.

d the aircraft state of registry.

11 A category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out

with a runway visual range of at least:

a 800 m

b 350 m

C 550 m

d 500 m

12. The coverage angle of the regulatory white position lights, continuously lit in flight

and located at the rear of the aircraft, is:

a 140°

b 110°

c 70°

d 220

13. The minimum time track is a track defined for:

a a period of 12 hours

B a given travel

c a period of 24 hours

d aircraft flying in MNPS airspace

14. The term decision height (DH) is used for:

A a precision approach.

B a conventional approach.

C an indirect approach.

d a conventional approach followed by a visual maneuver.

The recent experience conditions of a captain assigned to a flight on an aircraft by

an operator must not be less than:

a 6 take-offs and 6 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last 90 days

B 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last 90 days

c 6 take-offs and 6 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last 6 months

d 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last 6 months

The standby power supply powering the standby artificial horizon must be operable

on board any aircraft of more than 5700 kg or more than 9 passengers during at

least:

a 15 minutes.

b 60 minutes.

C 30 minutes.

d 2 hours.

A life jacket is mandatory for any passenger on board an aircraft flying away from

the shore by more than:

a 100 NM

B 50 NM

c 200 NM

d 400 NM

18.On overwater flights, an operator shall not operate an aeroplane at a distance away

from land, which is suitable for making a emergency landing greater than that corresponding to

A 400 NM or 120 minutes at cruising speed.

B 300 NM or 90 minutes at cruising speed.

c 200 NM or 45 minutes at cruising speed.

d 100 NM or 30 minutes at cruising speed.

19.

a 70.

b 140.

C 110.

d 220.

20

The regulatory green navigation light is located on the starboard wing tip, with a

coverage angle of:

Flight data recorders must keep the data and parameters recorded during at least

the last:

A 25 hours of operation.

b 30 hours of operation.

c flight.

d 48 hours of operation.

For aircraft certified before the 1 april 1998, cockpit voice recorder must keep the

conversations and sound alarms recorded during the last:

a flight

b 25 hours of operation.

C 30 minutes of operation.

d 48 hours of operation.

On board a non-pressurized aircraft, the crew and all the passengers must be fed

with oxygen throughout the flight period during which the pressure altitude is

greater than:

a 10 000 ft

b 12 000 ft

c 11 000 ft

D 13 000 ft

24
On board a non-pressurized aircraft, 10% of the passengers must be supplied with

oxygen throughout the period of flight, reduced by 30 minutes, during which the

pressure altitude is between:

a 10 000 ft and 12 000 ft

B 10 000 ft and 13 000 ft

c 11 000 ft and 13 000 ft

d 11 000 ft and 12 000 ft

On board a pressurized aircraft, a flight shall be undertaken only if the aircraft is

provided with an oxygen reserve enabling all the crew members and part of the

passengers to be supplied with oxygen in the event of a cabin depressurization,

throughout the flight period, during which the pressure altitude is greater than

a.12000 ft

b. 11000 ft

c. 10000 ft

d. 13000 ft

The determination of the aerodrome minimum operating conditions must take the

following into account: 1. equipment available for navigation 2. dimensions and

characteristics of the runways 3. composition of the flight crew 4. obstacles in the

vicinity of approach and missed approach areas 5. facilities for determining and

communicating the weather conditions Th

a 1,2,4,5

B 1,2,3,4,5

c 2,4,5

d 2,3,5

For the flight crew members, quickly-fitted oxygen masks are compulsory on board

any pressurized aircraft flying at a pressure altitude greater than:

a 29 000 ft

b 13 000 ft

C 25 000 ft

d 10 000 ft

A recent aircraft must be provided with a flight data recorder when its certified take-

off gross weight is greater than:

A 5 700 kg

b 14 000 kg

c 20 000 kg

d 27 000 kg

During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming

from the front left, will first see the:

a green flashing light

b red steady light

c white steady light

D green steady light

During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming

from the front right, will first see the:

a green flashing light

b green steady light

c white steady light

D red steady light

30. The coverage angle of the regulatory red position light, continuously lit in flight and

located at the tip of the left wing is:

a 140°

b 110°

c 70°

d 220

31. For turbo-jet aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the landing distance at the

scheduled destination aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance

multiplied by a factor of:

a 0.5

b 0.7

C 0.6

d 0.8

32. For turbo-propeller aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the landing distance on at

alternate aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by

a factor of:

A 0.7

b 0.6

c 0.5

d 0.8

33. The JAR-OPS is based on:

A ICAO Appendix 6

b The air transport rules

c The Federal Aviation Requirements (FAR)

d A JAA guideline

34. The validity period of a "certificate of airworthiness" varies with the conditions under

which the aircraft is maintained. If the maintenance is carried out according to an

approved programme and done in a maintenance shop approved by the Minister of

Civil Aviation, the validity period is:

a three years for public transport aircraft and one year for the others.

B three years.

c three years for public transport aircraft and five years for the others.

d three years if the aircraft has not undergone major modifications

35. A category III C precision approach (CAT III C) is an approach with:

a a runway visual range of at least 350 m

b a runway visual range of at least 50 m

c a runway visual range of at least 200 m

D 200 m

a 250m

b 150m

C 75 m

d 200m

A category III A precision approach (CAT III A) is an approach which may be carried

out with a runway visual range of at least:

A category III B precision approach (CAT III B) is an approach which may be

carried out with a runway visual range of at least:

A category II precision approach (CAT II) is an approach with:

C operation manual.

d operational flight plan.

A 1.3

b 1.45

c 1.5

d 1.15

When establishing an instrument approach procedure, 5 aircraft categories

according to their speed at the threshold (Vat) are established. This speed is equal

to the stalling speed in the landing configuration at the maximum certified landing

weight multiplied by a factor of:

A category D aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual

maneuver only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to:

a 1500 m

b 2400 m

c 1600 m

D 3600 m

A category C aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual

maneuver only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to:

a 1500 m

b 3600 m

c 1600 m

D 2400 m

A category B aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual

maneuver only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to:

a 2400 m

b 1500 m

c 3600 m

D 1600 m

A category A aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual

manoeuvre only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to:

a 1600 m

b 2400 m

C 1500 m

d 3600 m

During a conventional approach, the Minimum Descent Height (MDH) is referred to

the runway threshold altitude and not to the aerodrome altitude if the runway

threshold is at more than:

a 4 m (14 ft) below the airdrome altitude

b 2 m (7 ft) above the airdrome altitude

A 2,3,4,5

b 1,2,3,4,5,6

c 1,3,5

d 2,4

In accordance with JAR-OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), the lowest

minima to be used by an operator in a category B aeroplane for circling are:

a MDH=400 ft and visibility=1500 m

b MDH=500 ft and visibility=1600 m

c MDH=600 ft and visibility=2400 m

d MDH=700 ft and visibility=2600 m

JAR OPS 1.465 (VFR Operating minima), establishes that, the operator shall

ensure about VFR flights, that:

a for conducted VFR flights in airspace B, horizontal distance from clouds is 1 000 m at least

B 200m

c 230

d 300m

In accordance with JAR OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), the Category

III A Operation, is a precision instrument approach and landing using ILS or MLS

with a decision height lower than 100 feet an RVR (runway visual range) no less

than:

In accordance with JAR-OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operationg Minima), an operator

must ensure that system minima for "non-precision approach procedures", which

are based upon the use of ILS without glidepath (LLZ only), VOR NDB, SRA, and

VDF are no lower than MDH following value with:

a NDB facility, lowest MDH=300 ft

b ILS facility without glidepath (localizer) lowest MDH=200 ft

c VOR facility, lowest MDH=250 ft

d VOR/DME facility, lowest MDH=300 ft

In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an operator shall ensure that all relevant

operational and technical information for a individual flight is preserved on ground

for a predetermined period of time. Consequently, if practicable, a copy of the

operational flight plan shall be retained, during at least:

A 3 months

b 12 months

c 15 months

d 24 months

In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an operator shall ensure that a pilot does not

operate an aeroplane as pilot-in-command unless:

a he has carried out at least three take-off and three landings as pilot flying in any type of aeroplane or

an approved simulator, under the supervision of an examiner, in the preceding 60 days

b he has carried out at least three flights as pilot-in-command in an aeroplane or an approved flight

simulator of the type to be used, in the preceding 90 days

A 75 m

b 150m

c 100m

d 50 m

In accordance with JAR-OPS1, a Category III B operations, is a precision

instrument approach and landing using ILS or MLS with, a decision height lower

than 50 ft, or no decision height and a runway visual range lower than 200 m but no

less than:

The first part of the JAR-OPS applies to:

a the operation by a state member of the JAA of any civil aircraft.

b the aircraft proceeding from European states or flying over them.

c the aircraft used by police, customs and defense departments.

A operation flight plan.

b ATC (Air Traffic Control) flight plan.

c flight plan processing.

d flight route sheet.

An operator must ensure that for the duration of each flight, be kept on the ground,

if required:

A 60 days.

b 30 days.

c 90 days.

d 45 days.

During a flight, the chief informs the steward crew that a passenger is using a

portable device suspected to disburb the aircraft electronic systems. The captain:

a authorizes its use during the whole flight phase.

b authorizes its use except during take-off and landing phases.

C forbidden.

d authorized, providing both children are of a similar stature, sitting on the same seat and using the same seat belt with an adult sitting on the seat next to them in order to relase thir seat bel

In VFR public transport on an aircraft for which the flight manual inidicates a

minimum crew of one pilot, when do the regulations require the presence of a

second pilot?

a if the flight lasts more than 3 hours.

b if the aircraft is a twin-engine.

c if part or all the flight is done at night.

D never.

The file kept by an employer on its flight crews records: 1 - the training 2 - the test

results 3 - a log of flying hours 4 - a summary of the training by reference period

Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct answers?

A 1 - 2 - 3 - 4

b 1 - 2 - 3

c 2 - 3

d 3 - 4

The aircraft is a single engine, IFR, category A with a cruising speed of 150 knots.

The aircraft is flown by a single pilot. The usable runway has edge lights, high

intensity runway centre lights and RVR readings for threshold mid and end of

runway. The approach minimums for runway 06 are: DH = 300 feet, Horizontal

visibility (HV) = 800 metres. The weather condition

D 150 m.

A 1 - 3

b 1 - 4

The information to consider for a standard straight-in approach is: 1 - the

horizontal visibility 2 - the ceiling 3 - the minimum descending altitude (MDA) 4 - the

decision altitude (DA) Which of the following combinations contains all of the

correct statements?

c 1 - 2 - 3

d 1 - 2 - 4

For a twin-engine aeroplane, the standard operational take-off minimums may be

used provided an alternate aerodrome is accessible at less than:

D the outer marker (OM).

The pilot of a category A aircraft is flying a non-precision direct IFR approach with

the following operational minimums: MDH 250 feet and visibility 750 metres. RVR

for threshold, mid and end of the runway are given by the controller...

a the pilot may start the final approach if the three RVR are higher than 750 metres.

b the pilot may start the final approach if the threshold and mid-runway RVR are higher than 750 metres.

D D

In accordance with OPS 1 430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima - General), it is

established, among other considerations, that an Operator must take full account

of Aeroplane Categories. The criteria taken into consideration for classification of

Aeroplanes by Categories is the indicated airspeed at threshold (Vat), which is

equal to the stalling speed at the maximum landing mass (Vso) mult

The Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) defines the equipment on which

certain in-flight failures can be allowed and the conditions under which this

allowance can be accepted. This MMEL is drawn up by:

a the operator from a main list drawn up by the manufacturer

b the operator and is specified in the operation manual

c the operator and approved by the certification authority

C the airline operator.

d the Civil Aviation Authority of the european states.

A piece of equipment on your public transport airplane fails while taxiing to the

holding point. The reference document you use in the first place to decide on the

procedure to follow is:

a the JAR OPS.

b the minimum equipment list.

c the operation manual's chapter "Abnormal and Emergency Procedures".

d the flight record.

A piece of equipment on your public transport airplane fails while you are still

parked. The reference document you use to decide on the procedure to follow is:

D operation manual.

The master minimum equipment list (MMEL) is established by:

a the operator of the aircraft, and accepted by the authority

A The aircraft front areas.

b The upper and lower wingsurfaces.

c The upper and lower rudder surfaces.

d Only the pitot and static probes.

The terminal VOR transmittes the following weather data. When do you expect

carburettor icing?

a Outside Air Temperature (OAT): +15°C Dew Point (DEWP): -5°C

b Outside Air Temperature (OAT): +10°C Dew Point (DEWP): +7°C

c Outside Air Temperature (OAT): +25°C Dew Point (DEWP): +5°C

d Outside Air Temperature (OAT): -10°C Dew point (DEWP): -15°C

If the EPR probe becomes covered with ice, EPR indications will be:

a Dependent on the temperature.

b Less than the actual.

c Equal to the actual.

D Greater than the actual.

An aircraft having undergone an anti-icing procedure must be anti-icing fluid free at

the latest when:

a leaving the icing zone.

b releasing the brakes in order to take-off.

c it is implementing its own anti-icing devices.

C stalling speed

d roll rate

The reference document dealing with air transport of hazardous materials is:

a the Washington Convention

b ICAO Appendix 8

C ICAO Appendix 18

d Instruction No. 300 of June 3, 1957

When taking-off, in winter conditions, the wing contamination by ice or frost will

cause the following effects: 1 - an increase in the take-off distance 2 - a diminution

of the take-off run 3 - an increase in the stalling speed 4 - a diminution of the

stalling speed 5 - a diminution of the climb gradient The combination regrouping all

the correct statements is

A 1, 3, 5

b 2, 4, 5

c 1, 2, 3

d 2, 3, 5

The application of a type II de-icing fluid on an aircraft on ground will provide a:

B 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6

c 2, 3, 4, 5

d 1, 2, 4, 6

The anti-icing fluid protecting film can wear off and reduce considerably the

protection time:

a when the outside temperature is close to 0 °C.

A 1, 2

b 3, 4

c 2, 3

1, 4

In icing conditions and after the application of an anti-icing fluid on your airplane,

you are waiting to take-off by: 1. avoiding positioning yourself in the engine jet wash

of the preceding aircraft 2. avoiding positioning yourself in the turbo-props wash of

the preceding aircraft 3. positioning yourself in the engine jet wash of the preceding

aircraft 4. positioning

When an aircraft, having already undergone an anti-icing procedure, must be

protected again:

a you must wait until the protection time of the anti-icing fluid is over before applying the new layer of anti-icing fluid.

b You can apply directly the new layer of anti-icing fluid without previous de-icing.

c You must operate the aircraft de-icing/anti-icing devices before applying the new layer of anti-icing fluid.

Afrost

The holdover time following an anti-icing procedure being carried out will vary

considerbly depending on the ambient temperature and the weather conditions. For

a given ambient temperature, the longest protection will be in weather conditions of

b freezing fog

c rain on a cold soaked wing

d steady snow

If after anti-icing has been completed a pre-departure inspection reveals evidence

of freezing, the correct action is to:

D Freezing rain

In public transport, prior to take-off in icing conditions, the captain must check that:

a external surfaces are free from any ice accretion greater than 5 mm.

A 1 - 3 - 5

b 2 - 4 - 6

c 2 - 3 - 5

d 1 - 4 - 6

The observations and studies conducted on the behavior of birds on the ground,

ahead of an aircraft taking off and having reached an average speed of 135 kt,

show that birds fly away:

a about ten seconds beforehand

A 1,2,5

As regards the detection of bird strike hazard, the pilot's means of information and

prevention are: 1 - ATIS. 2 - NOTAMs. 3 - BIRDTAMs. 4 - Weather radar. 5 - The

report by another crew. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

b 1,2,3,4,5

c 1,3,4

d 2,5

A analysis of the bird strikes shows that the highest risk is encountered in a layer

from:

A from 0 to 150 m.

b from 500 to 1200 m.

c from 100 to 800 m.

d from 200 to 500 m.

90 % of bird strikes occur:

A under 500 m

b above 1 000 m

c between 500 and 1 000 m

d between 500 and 1 500 m

Which one of the following sets of conditions is the least likely to attract flocks of

birds?

a edible rubbish

B long grass

c an area liable to flooding

d short gang-mown grass

Which one of the following sets of conditions is most likely to attract birds to an

aerodrome?

a the extraction of minerals such as sand and gravel

b mowing and maintaining the grass long

c a modern sewage tip in close proximity

C 1,2,3.

d 2,3.

Noise attenuation shall not be the determining factor in the designation of a runway,

under the following circumstances: 1. when cross wind component, including

gust, exceeds 15 knots. 2. when the tail wind component, including gust, exceeds

5 knots. 3. when the runway is not clear or dry. The combination regrouping all the

correct statements is:

When setting up a minimum noise climb, the minimum height at which a power

reduction shall be allowed is:

a 600 m (2000 ft)

b 450 m (1500 ft)

c 150 m (500 ft)

D 300 m (1000 ft)

According with the "noise abatement take-off and climb procedure B", as

established in DOC 8168 - Ops Volume 1, part V, aircraft must climb at V2 + 10 to

20 kt, until reaching:

a 3 000 ft

b 500 ft

c 1 500 ft

D 1 000 ft

According to the recommended noise abatement procedures contained in the

ICAO, DOC 8268 Volume I part V, data available indicates that the procedure

which results in noise relief during the part of the procedure close to the airport:

a is procedure A

B is procedure B

c is either procedure A or B, because there is not difference in noise distribution

d depends on the wind component

According to the recommended "noise abatement take-off and climb procedure A"

established in ICAO, DOC 8168 Volume I part V, Chapter 3, thrust reduction to

climb power, has to be done as soon as the aircraft reaches:

a 2 000 ft

b 3 000 ft

C 1 500 ft

d 1 000 ft

Who has the responsibility for establishing operating procedures for noise

abatement purposes during instrument flight in compliance with ICAO PANS OPS

the:

A operator

b state of the operator

c state in which the aeroplane is operating

d commander

Which one of the following factors should prevent a runway being chosen as the

preferential landing runway for noise abatement purposes in visual meteorological

condition (VMC)?

A crash axes or crowbars.

b water and all type of beverage.

c a hydraulic winch and a big box of tools.

d a big bunch of fire extinguishing blankets.

If smoke appears in the air conditioning, the first action to take is to:

a Determine which system is causing the smoke.

b Begin an emergency descent.

D 1

A 1,2,3

You will use a halon extinguisher for a fire of: 1 - solids (fabric, plastic,...) 2 - liquids

(alcohol, gasoline,...) 3 - gas 4 - metals (aluminium, magnesium,...) The

combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

b 1,2,3,4

c 2,3,4

d 1,2,4

An engine fire warning will switch on the relevant fire shut off-handle. The fire shut-

off handle will be switched off when:

A 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

b 1, 3, 5

c 2, 3, 4

d 2, 4, 5

A CO2 fire extinguisher can be used for: 1. a paper fire 2. a hydrocarbon fire 3. a

fabric fire 4. an electrical fire 5. a wood fire The combination regrouping all the

correct statements is:

a 2, 3, 4

b 1, 3, 5

C 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

d 2, 4, 5

A water fire extinguisher can be used without restriction for: 1. a paper fire 2. a

hydrocarbon fire 3. a fabric fire 4. an electrical fire 5. a wood fire The combination

regrouping all the correct statements is:

a 2, 3, 4

b 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

C 1, 3, 5

d 2, 4, 5

After landing, in case of high temperature of the brakes you:

a apply the parking brake and you approach the wheels either from fore or aft.

b release the parking brake and you approach the wheels sidewards.

A 1, 2

In case of a fire due to the heating of the brakes, you fight the fire using: 1. a dry

powder fire extinguisher 2. a water spray atomizer 3. a water fire-extinguisher 4. a

CO2 fire-extinguisher to the maximum The combination regrouping all the correct

statements is:

b 2, 3, 4

c 3, 4

d 1, 4

In case of an engine nozzle fire while on ground you:

a pull the fire shut off handle and trigger the engines fire-extinguishers.

b carry out a damp cranking.

C carry out a dry cranking.

d fight the nozzle fire with a water fire-extinguisher.

To extinguish a fire in the cockpit, you use: 1. a water fire-extinguisher 2. a powder

or chemical fire-extinguisher 3. a halon fire-extinguisher 4. a CO2 fire-extinguisher

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a 1, 2, 3, 4

B 3, 4

c 1, 2

d 2, 3, 4

a 1,2,3

b 3,4

You will use a CO2 fire-extinguisher for: 1. a paper fire 2. a plastic fire 3. a

hydrocarbon fire 4. an electrical fire The combination regrouping all the correct

statements is:

C 1,2,3,4

d 2,3

You will use a powder fire-extinguisher for: 1. a paper fire 2. a plastic fire 3. a

hydrocarbon fire 4. an electrical fire The combination regrouping all the correct

statements is:

a 1, 2, 3

B 1, 2, 3, 4

c 2, 3

d 1, 4

223

a water

A fire occurs in a wheel and immediate action is required to extinguish it. The

safest extinguishant to use is:

B dry powder

c CO2 (carbon dioxide)

d foam

To fight a fire in an air-conditioned cargo hold:

a Fire-fighting is not necessary, since the transport of combustible goods in an air-conditioned cargo hold is forbidden.

b Extinguish fire and reduce air conditioning.

c Extinguish fire only.

C 1 - 2 - 3 - 4

d 1 - 2 - 3

The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class A fires are: 1 - H2O 2 -

CO2 3 - dry-chemical 4 - halogen Which of the following combinations contains all

of the correct statements?

a 2 - 3 - 4

B 1 - 2 - 3 - 4

c 1

d 3 - 4

a 3 - 4

The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class B fires are: 1 - H2O 2 -

CO2 3 - dry-chemical 4 - halogen Which of the following combinations contains all

of the correct statements?

b 1 - 2 - 3 - 4

c 2

D 2 - 3 - 4

H2O extinguishers are fit to fight:

a electrical source fires

b Class B fires

C Class A fires

d special fires: metals, gas, chemical products

CO2 type extinguishers are fit to fight: 1 - class A fires 2 - class B fires 3 -

electrical source fires 4 - special fires: metals, gas, chemical product Which of the

following combinations contains all the correct statements:

a 1 - 3 - 4

b 1 - 2 - 4

c 2 - 3 - 4

D 1 - 2 - 3

A class A fire is a fire of:

a liquid or liquefiable solid

B 1,2,3

c 1,3.

d 2,3.

We would know that the automatic pressurization system has malfunctioned if: 1.

threre is a change in environnemental sounds. 2. the cabin barometer indicates a

sharp rise. 3. the differential pressure between the exterior and the interior

becomes equal. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

The time of useful consciousness in case of an explosive decompression at an

altitude of 40 000 ft is:

a 1 minute.

b 30 seconds.

C 12 seconds.

d 5 minutes.

During an explosive decompression at flight level 370 (FL 370), your first action will

be:

A to put on the oxygen mask

b to set the transponder to 7700

c to warn the ATC

d to comfort your passengers

A fast decompression is recognizable by the following elements: 1. mist in the

cabin 2. blast towards the exterior of the aircraft 3. expansion of body gases 4.

blast of air released violently from the lungs The combination regrouping all the

correct statements is:

a 2, 3, 4

B 1, 2, 3, 4

c 1, 2, 3

d 1, 4

A slow decompression may be caused by: 1. a slight airtightness defect 2. a bad

functioning of the pressurization 3. the loss of a window 4. the loss of a door The

combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a 1, 2, 3, 4

B 1, 2

c 3, 4

d 1, 2, 3

An aeroplane suffers an explosive decompression at an altitude of 31000 ft. Whatis the initial action by the operating crew?

a disconnect the autopilot

B to put on oxygen masks

c transmit a MAYDAY message

d place the seat belts sign to ON

When flying in straight and level flight at FL 290 for some considerable time a small

leak develops in the cabin which causes a slow depressurisation, this can be seen

on the cabin rate of climb indicator which will indicate:

a a rate of descent of approximately 300 fpm

B a rate of climb

c zero

d a rate of descent dependent upon the cabin differential pressure

If cabin altitude increases during level flight, the differential pressure:

a attains its maximum permitted operating limit

b increases

c remains constant

D decreases

Due to a cabin pressurisation defect the maximum differential pressure is limited to

3 psi. Assuming the oxygen masks will be deployed at 14000 feet, the maximum

achievable flight altitude is approximately:

a 22500 ft

B 24500 ft

c 27000 ft

d 29000 ft

Due to a cabin pressurisation defect the maximum differential pressure is limited to

2 psi. Assuming the oxygen masks will be deployed at 14000 feet, the maximum

achievable flight altitude is approximately:

A 20750 ft

b 12000 ft

c 8600 ft

d 2900 ft

Following an explosive decompression, the maximum altitude without oxygen at

which flying efficiency is not impaired is:

A 8000 ft

b 25000 ft

c 14000 ft

d 2500 ft

Following an explosive decompression, if you are using an oxygen diluter demand

system, the regulator controls the amount of air that is mixed with pure oxygen

when the supply selector is at the "normal" position. At what approximate altitude

will the regulator supply to the mask become pure oxygen only?

a 25000 ft

B 32000 ft

c 14000 ft

d 8000 ft

The minimum requirements for Supplemental Oxygen to be supplied in

pressurised aeroplanes during and following an emergency descent are that for

pilots it shall be available for the entire flight time that the cabin pressure altitude

exceeds a minimum of X feet. That minimum of X feet is:

a 15000 ft

b 14000 ft

C 13000 ft

d 25000 ft

A 2,4

b 2,3

c 1,3

d 1,4

A 2,4.

b 2,3.

c 1,3.

d 1,4.

a 2,3.

b 1,4.

C 1,3.

d 2,4.

During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with a decreasing

head wind. In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft: 1. flies above the glide path

2. flies below the glide path 3. has an increasing true airspeed 4. has a decreasing

true airspeed The combination of correct statements is:

During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with an

increasing tail wind. In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft: 1- flies above the

glide path 2- flies below the gilde path 3- has an increasing true airspeed 4- has a

decreasing true airspeed The combination of correct statements is:

During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with an

increasing head wind.In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft: 1- flies above the

glide path 2- flies below theglide path 3- has an increasing true airspeed 4- has a

decreasing true airspeed The combination of correct statements is:

a 2,4.

b 1,4.

c 2,3.

D 1,3.

a 1,3.

b 2,3.

C 2,4.

d 1,4.

During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with a decreasing

tail wind. In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft: 1- flies above the glide path

2- flies below the glide path 3- has an increasing true airspeed 4- has a decreasing

true airspeed the combination of correct statements is:

After take-off, an aircraft is subjected to windshear with a decreasing head wind. In

the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft: 1- flies above the climb-out path 2- flies

below the climb-out path 3- has an increasing true airspeed 4- has a decreasing

true airspeed The combination of correct statements is:

When an aircraft flies into a horizontal tail wind gust the aircraft tends:

a to climb

B to descend

c not to change its trajectory

d to climb or descend, depending on the gust strength

One of the main characteristics of windshear is that it:

a occurs only at a low altitude (2000 ft) and never in the vertical plane

B Indicated airspeed.

c Vertical speed.

d Groundspeed.

a 2,3

b 1,4

C 1,3

d 2,4

In final approach, you encounter a strong rear wind gust or strong down wind which

forces you to go around. You 1- maintain the same aircraft configuration (gear and

flaps) 2- reduce the drags (gear and flaps) 3- gradually increase the attitude up to

triggering of stick shaker 4- avoid excessive attitude change The combination of

correct statements is:

254

a 60 kt.

b 40 kt.

C 80 kt.

d 20 kt.

An aircraft which experiencies a headwind of 40 kt while making its way towards

the centre of a microburst may expect, when crossing the microburst, to face a

windshear of:

&

Система охраняемых территорий в США Изучение особо охраняемых природных территорий(ООПТ) США представляет особый интерес по многим причинам...

Конфликты в семейной жизни. Как это изменить? Редкий брак и взаимоотношения существуют без конфликтов и напряженности. Через это проходят все...

Живите по правилу: МАЛО ЛИ ЧТО НА СВЕТЕ СУЩЕСТВУЕТ? Я неслучайно подчеркиваю, что место в голове ограничено, а информации вокруг много, и что ваше право...

ЧТО ТАКОЕ УВЕРЕННОЕ ПОВЕДЕНИЕ В МЕЖЛИЧНОСТНЫХ ОТНОШЕНИЯХ? Исторически существует три основных модели различий, существующих между...

Не нашли то, что искали? Воспользуйтесь поиском гугл на сайте: